NewsCanvassEdu

25 CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions with Answers

25 CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions with Answers

CLAT Legal reasoning is one of the most crucial sections in the exam, carrying nearly 25% weightage. It tests your ability to apply legal principles to factual situations, analyze arguments, and understand how laws operate in practice. To help you prepare, we’ve curated 25 high-quality CLAT legal reasoning questions with answers, drawn from past papers and restructured for clarity.

CLAT Legal Reasoning Quick Overview

Particulars Details
Type of Questions MCQs based on passages
Number of Passages 4–5 passages
Questions per Passage 4–5
Total Questions 28–32
Weightage ~25%
Passage Length ~450 words
Skills Tested Applying rules, interpreting principles, analyzing fact situations
Negative Marking -0.25 per wrong answer
Difficulty Level Moderate, with legal-technical language
Key Topics Contracts, Constitution, Personal Law, Jurisdiction, Legal Maxims, Tort Principles

 

CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions

Practicing CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions helps aspirants understand how legal principles apply to everyday situations. These questions are designed to test analytical ability, logical application, and awareness of important laws

Passage 1: Free legal aid under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987

Legal aid in India is governed by the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 and implemented by NALSA. Eligible beneficiaries include women, children, SC/ST persons, persons with disabilities, industrial workmen, and individuals in police custody. Support can cover representation, drafting, court fees, and certified copies, from trial courts up to the Supreme Court, provided NALSA believes there’s a genuine case to prosecute or defend. Access to aid also extends to assistance for welfare schemes and statutory benefits. The entitlement is status-based (e.g., woman, child, in custody), but aid is discretionary on genuineness.

Q1. A woman convicted of theft seeks free legal aid to file a Supreme Court appeal. Is she eligible?

  • (A) No, criminal matters aren’t covered
  • (B) Yes, women are eligible under Section 12
  • (C) No, she should have applied earlier
  • (D) Yes, but only for civil matters

Q2. An industrial workman injured in a workplace dispute asks for representation. Can NALSA assist?

  • (A) Yes, industrial workmen are covered
  • (B) No, only criminal cases qualify
  • (C) Yes, but only if disabled
  • (D) No, employment disputes are excluded

Q3. A child accused of shoplifting requests legal aid. Is he entitled?

  • (A) Yes, children fall under Section 12
  • (B) No, only adults are eligible
  • (C) Yes, but only if indigent
  • (D) No, petty offences aren’t covered

Q4. A person in police custody asks NALSA for help with bail. Is he eligible?

  • (A) Yes, custody itself qualifies under Section 12
  • (B) No, bail is discretionary so not covered
  • (C) Yes, but only if SC/ST
  • (D) No, only trials are covered

Q5. A woman seeks free legal aid in a divorce proceeding. Is she eligible?

  • (A) Yes, women are eligible regardless of case type
  • (B) No, personal law disputes aren’t covered
  • (C) Yes, but only if below poverty line
  • (D) No, family cases must be self-funded

Passage 2: Domestic responsibilities and Section 498A IPC

Courts have clarified that asking a spouse to perform household chores does not by itself amount to “cruelty” under Section 498A IPC. Cruelty requires proof of harassment, violence, or conduct akin to servitude, or treatment meeting the statutory threshold. The Section applies to the husband or his relatives; non-relatives are outside its scope. If the law later changes to include domestic work as cruelty, prospective application governs unless a statute expressly provides retroactive effect.

Q6. A husband asks his wife to manage cooking and cleaning because he works late. She alleges 498A cruelty. Likely outcome?

  • (A) Yes, because the burden is unfair
  • (B) No, household work alone isn’t cruelty
  • (C) Yes, any domestic duty equals servitude
  • (D) No, IPC doesn’t cover domestic chores

Q7. A visiting friend abuses the wife and throws a plate at her. Can 498A be invoked against him?

  • (A) Yes, the conduct is cruel
  • (B) No, he is neither husband nor husband’s relative
  • (C) Yes, because he stayed in their home
  • (D) No, meal complaints can be justified

Q8. After divorce, the ex‑husband harasses his former wife. Can she file under 498A?

  • (A) Yes, cruelty occurred
  • (B) No, they are no longer married
  • (C) Yes, he was once her husband
  • (D) No, divorce ends criminal liability

Q9. A new statute makes compelling a wife to do all household chores an offence, with retrospective application to the past three years. Can compensation be claimed under the new law despite divorce?

  • (A) Yes, if the new law expressly applies retrospectively
  • (B) No, past acts are closed
  • (C) Yes, but only if cruelty is separately proven
  • (D) No, criminal laws can’t be retrospective

Q10. Section 498A is amended to include unilateral imposition of household chores by the husband as cruelty. A colleague’s husband forces her to do all chores alone. Is 498A applicable now?

  • (A) Yes, as the amended Section covers it
  • (B) No, because others previously failed under 498A
  • (C) Yes, due to a different Act’s penalties
  • (D) No, only relatives can complain

Passage 3: Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022

The Identification Act authorizes collection of “measurements” (fingerprints, palm prints, photographs, iris/retina scans, signatures, handwriting, and biological samples) from arrested persons and others directed by a Magistrate. Implementation began after Rules were notified (Sept 19, 2022). Preventive detainees’ measurements cannot be taken unless they are simultaneously charged/arrested for another offence. If an ordered person refuses, a Head Constable or above may take measurements. Proceedings under CrPC Section 117 (security for good behaviour) are covered when an order issues.

Q11. In April 2022, police demand fingerprints from an arrested suspect before the Rules were notified. Must he comply?

  • (A) Yes, he was under arrest
  • (B) No, without Rules the Act wasn’t in force
  • (C) Yes, fingerprints are “measurements”
  • (D) No, only convicts must comply

Q12. In October 2022, a Magistrate orders blood samples from an assault suspect to match blood stains. He refuses. Must he comply?

  • (A) Yes, the judicial order compels compliance
  • (B) No, because he isn’t convicted
  • (C) Yes, due to previous arrests
  • (D) No, privacy overrides the Act

Q13. Police detain a person under a preventive CrPC provision and demand his photograph. Is that valid?

  • (A) No, unless he is also charged/arrested in another offence
  • (B) Yes, preventive detention permits it
  • (C) No, it violates privacy
  • (D) Yes, because he might disturb peace

Q14. A Magistrate orders photographs; the person resists. A regular constable takes them by force. Is this compliant?

  • (A) No, only Head Constable or higher may take measurements on resistance
  • (B) Yes, a Magistrate’s order suffices
  • (C) No, preventive detention bars all measurements
  • (D) Yes, constables act under general duty

Q15. Police, after failing to secure an order under CrPC Section 117, demand iris and retina scans from a preventive detainee. Must he provide them?

  • (A) No, without the Section 117 order, the demand fails
  • (B) Yes, preventive detention is enough
  • (C) No, privacy bars scans
  • (D) Yes, because of prior detentions

Passage 4: Electoral Bonds—sale windows, validity, and party eligibility

Electoral bonds are sold in notified tranches through authorized SBI branches and must be deposited within 15 calendar days of issuance. Amendments allow an additional 15‑day sale period in years with Assembly elections. Only political parties meeting the eligibility threshold (e.g., at least 1% vote share in the most recent Lok Sabha/State Assembly election) can encash bonds. Once deposited, the amount is credited the same day; bonds deposited after expiry are invalid.

Q16. A bond issued on Nov 9 is deposited by the party on Nov 16. Should the bank credit it?

  • (A) Yes, it falls within 15 days
  • (B) No, the sale ended Nov 15
  • (C) No, wrong SBI branch
  • (D) Yes, supporter intent matters

Q17. A brand‑new party formed in 2023 with no prior vote share tries to encash bonds received from donors. Is it eligible?

  • (A) No, it lacks the minimum vote share
  • (B) Yes, it may win future elections
  • (C) Yes, under pre‑amendment rules
  • (D) No, bonds are only for national parties

Q18. A donor asks for her bond back after the party changes candidates, but the party says it has already deposited and received credit. Can she demand it back?

  • (A) No, once deposited and credited, the bond can’t be retrieved
  • (B) Yes, she paid for the bond
  • (C) Yes, candidate changes justify withdrawal
  • (D) No, bonds are refundable only within validity

Q19. A party deposits a bond on Day 16 from the date of issue. Will SBI credit it?

  • (A) No, deposits after 15 days are invalid
  • (B) Yes, if at an authorized branch
  • (C) Yes, due to donor goodwill
  • (D) No, unless Lok Sabha election year

Q20. A party with 0.7% vote share attempts to encash bonds post‑notification revising eligibility. Outcome?

  • (A) Invalid—party fails eligibility threshold
  • (B) Valid—small parties are protected
  • (C) Valid—deposit within 15 days overrides eligibility
  • (D) Invalid—bonds restricted to parties with seats

Passage 5: Blocking orders under the IT Act—scope and safeguards

Under the IT Act, Section 69A empowers the Central Government to direct intermediaries to block access to specific information if necessary in interests like sovereignty, security, or public order. The law requires reasoned orders, typically communicated (subject to confidentiality limits), and applies to particular content, not entire accounts. Non‑compliance can risk “safe harbour” immunity. Platforms must act on the government’s stated reasons; substituting their own reasoning for government directions is improper.

Q21. A blocking order cites “posts that may bring disrepute to India” without specific reasons. Is it valid?

  • (A) Yes, objectionable posts suffice
  • (B) No, vagueness makes it invalid
  • (C) Yes, rank of officer is enough
  • (D) No, any blocking violates free speech

Q22. Government orders a platform to block an entire account for repeated violations. Is that permissible under S.69A?

  • (A) Yes, because the posts are harmful
  • (B) No, only specific information/posts can be blocked
  • (C) Yes, broad powers include account bans
  • (D) No, reasons weren’t communicated

Q23. A platform executes a post‑level block but informs the user with its own “better reasons” instead of those in the order. Was that appropriate?

  • (A) The order stands, but the platform’s substituted reasons were inappropriate
  • (B) The platform’s reasons are fine; the order was invalid
  • (C) Both actions were valid
  • (D) Both actions were invalid

Q24. An officer warns a platform: “Comply or we’ll initiate criminal proceedings and remove safe harbour.” Is that within power?

  • (A) Yes, the IT Act allows withdrawal of safe harbour for non‑compliance
  • (B) No, phrasing amounts to intimidation
  • (C) Yes, due to prior violations
  • (D) No, only courts can threaten prosecution

Q25. A platform blocks a user’s entire account and later shares reasons. The user challenges the order. Is he right?

  • (A) Yes, accounts cannot be blocked under S.69A
  • (B) No, reasons were shared
  • (C) Yes, the officer targeted him
  • (D) No, posts were objectionable

Answer key

  • Passage 1 (Free legal aid): 1‑B, 2‑A, 3‑A, 4‑A, 5‑A
  • Passage 2 (Section 498A IPC): 6‑B, 7‑B, 8‑B, 9‑A, 10‑A
  • Passage 3 (Identification Act): 11‑B, 12‑A, 13‑A, 14‑A, 15‑A
  • Passage 4 (Electoral bonds): 16‑A, 17‑A, 18‑A, 19‑A, 20‑A
  • Passage 5 (IT Act blocking): 21‑B, 22‑B, 23‑A, 24‑A, 25‑A

Conclusion

Practicing CLAT legal reasoning questions is the most effective way to build confidence for the exam. These passages and MCQs mirror the actual test format, helping you sharpen analytical skills, apply principles to real‑world scenarios, and avoid common traps. By solving these 25 curated CLAT legal reasoning questions with answers, you not only strengthen your legal aptitude but also improve speed and accuracy — two critical factors for success in CLAT 2026.

To Download Monthly Current Affairs PDF Click here

Click here to get a free demo

Discover all about CLAT Exam

View All